PLANT ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY (25 questions, 25 points)

 

 

 

60. Which of the following can not be stated relating to cyclic photophosphorylation?

 

A) It is favored when the cell is more in need of ATP than NADPre

B) It is favored when NADPox is in short supply

C) An energized electron is first accepted by ferredoxin

D) Plastocyanin is the last acceptor of an energized electron before it reaches the center

E) In the system, cytochrome ปf” connects ferredoxin to plastoquinone

 

 

62.

 

I. It is required for activity of some dehydrogenases, decarboxylases, kinases, oxidases and

peroxidases

II. Under its deficiency, plant tissues become soft and often flaccid even under low

temperature and stress conditions

III. It is required for the photosynthetic reactions involved in the O2 cycle

 

Which of the alternatives given above are arranged best?

 

              I                     II                         III

--ญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญญ

A)          N                   Ca         Mg

 

B)          S                   Mn         Mg

 

C)          Mn                N           P

 

D)          Mn                Ca         Cl

 

E)          Cl                  K           P

 

 

63. When the temperature is high and the amount of dissolved oxygen is higher than that of CO2 in the chloroplasts, in which of the following plants does growth not slow down?

 

A)    Wheat

B)    Water melon

C)    Sun flower

D)   Sugar cane

E)    Rice

 

 


68. Which of the following can not be referred to as blue‑light responses in higher plants and fungi?

 

A)    Phototropism in Phycomyces

B)    Carotenoid biosynthesis in Neurospora

C)    Stomatal opening in higher plants

D)    Chloroplast rearrangements

E)    Flavonoid synthesis

 

 

69. "Shooty" tumors are produced in the stem of an "X" plant infected by bacteria in which mutations occur in their T‑DNA, while "rooty" tumors are formed in the stem of a "Y" plant. Which of the following is true for the effects mentioned above.

 

A)    In the "X" plant, the genes which are responsible for giberellin synthesis are inactivated while in the "Y" plant, genes which are responsible for abscissic acid synthesis are inactivated

B)    In the "X" plant, the genes which are responsible for Indol-acetic-acid synthesis are inactivated while in the "Y" plant, genes which are responsible for zeatin synthesis are inactivated

C)    In the "X" plant, the genes which are responsible for zeatin synthesis are inactivated while in the "Y" plant, genes which are responsible for ethylene synthesis are inactivated.

D)    In the "X" plant, the genes which are responsible for abscissic acid synthesis inactivated while in the "Y" plant, genes which are responsible ethylene synthesis are inactivated.

E)    In the "X" plant, the genes which are responsible for cytokinins synthesis are inactivated while in the "Y" plant, genes which are responsible for ethylene synthesis are inactivated.

 

 


70. In the figure, changes in water potential in the leaves of a plant over a period of time are shown. Which of the following is true according to this situation?

 


 

A)    The ABA content decreased, and stomata resistance increased on the 2nd and 6'h days; the process was reversed on the and 8 days.

B)    The ABA content did not change, and stomatal conductivity decreased on the 2nd and 6th days; the process was reversed on the 6"'and 8'h days

C)    The ABA content increased and stomata resistance decreased on the 2nd and 6th days; the process was reversed on the 6" and 8'h days.

D)    The ABA content and stomata resistance increased on the 2nd and 6th days; the process was reversed on the 6th and 8" days.

E)    The ABA content decreased and stomatal conductance increased on the 2nd and 6th days; the process was reversed on the 6" and 8~" days.

 

 

71. Which of the following are limiting or near‑limiting nutrients both in aquatic and terrestrial systems?

 

A) Nitrogen‑potassium

B) Potassium‑magnesium

C) Phosphorus‑nitrogen

D) Calcium‑magnesium

E) Iodine‑magnesium

 

 

72. Which of the following is not true for the auxin transport in plants?

 

A) IAA transport usually does not take place in sieve tubes and xylem

B) IAA transport usually occurs in parenchymatic cells adjacent to vascular bundles

C) The movement of auxin is slow.

D) IAA moves mainly from the apex to the base (basipetal direction)

E) Auxin transport does not require energy


73. Light is perceived by all living organisms in one way or the other. The pigment of choice for this process of photoperception are carotenoids. Which of the following properties make carotenoids the right pigment for this function.

 

A)    Their ability to absorb most of the visible and Ultraviolet light

B)    Their high capacity to store and transfer light energy as chemical energy

C)    As saturated organic compounds, their capability to preserve themselves against environmental factors such as high energy currents

D)    Their high affinity for proteins which have a role in perception

E)    The efficiency of long conjugated double bond systems in their structure to initiate light sensitive stereoisomerism

 

 

 

74. The changes that take place in fruits when they ripen (color, texture and chemical composition) are due to:

 

The CO2 content in the atmosphere

The temperature variation

The ethylene synthesis in the plant

The indolacetic concentration in the fruit

The giberellin concentration in the fruit

 

 


76. The data obtained relating to the rates of oxygen release and uptake in plants.  The plants were placed in the dark for 12 hours in light.  The temperature was constant throughout the experiment.  The results are shown in the graph.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 


Which of the following is the most accurate estimate of the total volume of oxygen used by the plants for respiration during 24 hours of the experimental time?

 

A)    50 cm3

B)    600 cm3

C)    1000 cm3

D)    1200 cm3

E)    1800 cm3

 

 

77. In which aspect does C4 photosynthesis differ from Crassulacean acid metabolism?

 

A)    PEP carboxylase is only used in C4 photosynthesis

B)    CO2 fixation in CAM plants occurs at night while it occurs in C4 plants during the day time

C)    Organic acids with four carbons are only produced in C4 photosynthesis

D)    Only plants with crassulacean acid metabolism can carry out photosynthesis in arid environments

E)    Only plants with C4 photosynthesis can economize water

 

 


78 Which of the following cannot be stated with relation to the shoot apex?

 

A)    There is only one apical cell in vascular non-flowering plants

B)    There is more than one apical cell in each cell layer in gymnosperms

C)    There are different apical cells in more than one tissue layer in angiosperms

D)    An apical cell is pyramidal shaped in non-flowering plants

E)    A shoot apex with remarkable tunica and corpus is found in gymnosperms.

 

 

79. Which of the following cannot be stated for the colenchyma?

 

A)    It is a living tissue found in developing organs

B)    It is formed in the roots only under the effect of light

C)    Its location in petioles is peripheral

D)    It is located at the periphery of woody stems

E)    It is located at the periphery of lamina

 

 

80. Which of the following can not be referred to as a function of the sporoderm layer of pollens?

 

A)    The storage of enzyme proteins for the reactions

B)    Playing a role in the reaction between pollen and stigma

C)    Production of the pollen tube

D)    Protection of pollen against external factors

E)    Realizing pollination

 

 

82. In a flower, symmetry is radial, calyx 4 and tubular, corolla 4 and is separate, the androecium has 5 stamens and is connected to the corolla, the gynoecium is separated into 5 parts, superior and syncarpous.  Which of the formula is consistent with the description given above?

 

A)    +K(4)[C4A(5)]G(5)

B)    +K(4)C4A(5)G(5)

C) *K4C4A5G5

D) *K(4)[C4A(5)]G(5)

E) *K4[C4A5]G5

 

83. Which of the following is true for a C4 plant in which some leaves can carry out C3 photosynthesis while others can carry out C4 photosynthesis?

 

A)    In fact, it is a C3 plant

B)    The leaves which carry out C3 photosynthesis lack Kranz anatomy

C)    PEP is not synthesized in the leaves which carry out C4 photosynthesis

D)    It indicates that the C4 pathway was evolved from the C3 pathway

E)    both C3 and C4 photosynthesis do not occur on the same leaf.

 


BIOSYSTEMATICS (10 Questions, 10 Points)

 

 

 

86.

 

I a small dry single-seeded, indehiscent fruit

II A fruit with a single ovary consisting of a single carpel

III Dehiscent fruit is formed by two carpels with a septum between the carpels and its length is less than three times its width

 

The above statements describe three fruit types

 

 


Which of the following combinations are correct for the fruit types?

 

            I                       II                      III

A)        Silique            Legume         Achene

B)        Legume         Silique            Achene

C)        Silique            Achene          Legume

D)        Achene          Silique            Legume

E)        Achene          Legume         Silique

 

 

89. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of a deuterostomian animal?

 

A)    Radial cleavage during the embryonic development

B)    Regulative development during the embryonic period

C)    Enterocoelom

D)    Pharyngeal slits on the pharynx

E)    Original(evolutionary origin) bilateral symmetry

 

 

90. The main reason for echinoderms living only in the sea is because

A)    They were adapted to be sessile so they do not have a great distribution

B)    They appear fist in the seas

C)    They live in different habitat types in the sea

D)    They have no excretory system

E)    There are safer places in the deep sea

 

 

91 Which one of the following structures of earthworms has similar functions to the liver of vertebrates?

 

A)    Typhlosolis

B)    Coelomocytes

C)    Chloragogen cells

D)    Cells that line the inner surface of the small intestine

E)    Calcium gland cells

 

 

92. The metanephridia of annelids and mollusks are functionally and structurally similar to the vertebrate kidneys.  During the formation of urine, filtration, reabsorption and secretion processes occur.  Where does filtration occur in the nephridium of mussels?

 

A)    On the nephrostom in the nephridium

B)    On the cardiac wall and pericardial glands

C)    On the tubules that are connected to the nephrostom

D)    On the wall of the intestine

E)    On the gill capillaries

 

 

93. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of mollusks (Mollusca)?

 

A)    Mantle

B)    Radula

C)    Trochophore larva

D)    Spiral cleavage

E)    Regulative development

 


ANIMAL ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY (20 Questions, 20 Points)

 

 

 

96. Which of the following is an important feature of primitive aquatic life forms

 

A)    Partially oxygenated blood

B)    An open circulation with no small blood vessels or capillaries

C)    Significantly decreased blood pressure

D)    Highly acidic blood

E)    Carriage of most of the O2 in the plasma

 

 

97.

 

I.                     Partial O2 pressure

II.                   pH

III.                  Amount of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate

IV.               Partial CO2 pressure

V.                 Body temperature

 

The factors affecting the dissociation of O2 from hemoglobin in the human circulatory system are given above.  In which of the following condition does this dissociation occur most easily?

 

A)    I high         III low               IV high

B)    II high        V low              III high

C)    I low          IV high            III high

D)    V high       IV low             I high

E)    II low         III low               V low

 

 

98. A nerve skeletal muscle isolated preparation is place in a Ca2+ free medium appropriate for its survival.  If the nerve is electrically stimulated, which of the following events will occur?

 

A)    The muscle will not be stimulated

B)    The muscle will be stimulated but will not contract

C)    The muscle will be both stimulated and will contract

D)    The muscle will not be stimulated, but even if it were, it would not contract

E)    The muscle may be stimulated, and may contract, but it will not relax

 

 


99. Which of the following is false about the differences between the vertebrate skeletal muscles and smooth muscles?

 

A)    Skeletal muscle is more sensitive to electrical stimulation while smooth muscle is more sensitive to chemical stimulation

B)    Skeletal muscle has a certain length in the resting state: smooth muscle has not

C)    Smooth muscle contracts more than skeletal muscle after stretching

D)    Skeletal muscle consumes 10% less energy than the smooth muscle if the same degree of contraction is attained

E)    Without a nerve connection, skeletal muscle cannot function, but smooth muscle can

 

100.

 


 

 

 

The figure shows a feedback system for the control of the output of blood from the heart (cardiac output).  Which of the following gives the correct description of the parts played by the components X, Y  and Z?

 

            X                     Y                     Z

A)        Monitor           Receptor        Effector

B)        Monitor           Effector          Receptor

C)        Receptor        Monitor           Effector

D)        Receptor        Effector          Monitor

E)        Effector          Monitor           Receptor

 

 


101.

 

I.                     The magnitude of the impulse is dependent on the size of the stimulus

II.                   The number of fibers which are stimulated increases with the size of the stimulus

III.                  The speed at which the impulse travels increases with the size of the stimulus

IV.               The speed at which the impulse travels depends on whether or not the nerve has a myelin sheath

V.                 The speed of the impulse conduction is directly proportional to the diameter of the axon

 

Which of the following is the correct combination of the statements give above about the never conduction?

 

A)    I, II and III

B)    II, III, and IV

C)    II, IV, and V

D)    III, IV and V

E)    I, III and V

 

103. The figure shows some parts of a mammalian eye numbered 1-5.  If light suddenly strikes the eye, which of the following will be the pathway for the evoked unconditional pupil reflex. (CNS = Central Nervous System)

 

 

 


A)    From 4 to the CNS and the to 3

B)    From 1 to 4 then to the CNS and then to2

C)    From 3 to the CNS and back to 3

D)    From 5 to 1 then to 2

E)    From 4 to the CNS and then to 5


104. When an epinephrine solution is dropped on the surface of a frog muscle (M. gastrocnemius) in vitro, the muscle displays a strong contraction.  However, when the epinephrine solution is injected into the muscle cell, nothing happens.  Which of the following is the reason for this?

 

A)    Epinephrine induced the antagonistic effect inside the cell

B)    Epinephrine induced the side-effect inside the cell

C)    Epinephrine was not processed by proteolytic enzymes

D)    Epinephrine did not find the receptor inside the cell

E)    Epinephrine was degraded inside the cell

 

 

105. Which of the following alternatives constitute the cell groups that function effectively in the human immune system?

 

A)    T lymphocyte – B lymphocyte – Macrophage

B)    T lymphocyte – Macrophage – Erythrocyte

C)    B lymphocyte – Kuppfer cell – Lipocyte

D)    Dendritic cell – Neutrophilic leukocyte – Fibroblast

E)    Microglia – Histiocyte- Megakaryocyte

 

 


106. The left-hand diagram shows a frog sciatic nerve lying across a number of electrodes.  The electrodes A and B are use for stimulating and C and D for recording.  The right hand diagram shows a typical recorded action potential.  Based on this information, which of the following statements is correct?

 

 

 


 

A)    The duration of the recorded action potential (d) will be independent of the distance between electrodes C and D.

B)    The magnitude of the recorded action potential (m) will be independent of the distance between electrodes C and D

C)    The first deflection on the recording occurs when electrode C is negative with respect to D.

D)    The duration of the recorded action potential will depend on the distance between B and C

E)    The recorded action potential can be mad monophasic by applying local anesthetic at A.

 

 

108. Which one of the following is incorrectly matched?

 

A)    Bird – Discoidal cleavage – Erythrocyte with nucleus

B)    Frog – Mesonephros kidney- Holoblastic in equal cleavage

C)    Reptile - Viviparous organisms – Telolecithal egg

D)    Fish – deuterostomian- Radial cleavage

E)    Mussel – Protostomian- Mosaic development

 

 


109. Diagram shows the rates of filtration (F), reabsorption ฎ and excretion (E) of a substance (X) in relation to its plasma concentration by the kidneys.  Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

 

 


A)    The reabsorption of X is dependent on its plasma concentration

B)    The filtration rate of X is directly proportional to its plasma concentration

C)    When the plasma concentration of X reaches a certain value, its excretion rate suddenly increases

D)    The concentration of X in the urine is expected to be higher than in the glomerular filtrate

E)    The filtration rate of X in the glomerulus is constant

 

 

110, Which of the following hormonal conditions of a woman is suitable in her late pregnancy?

 

A)    Increasing estrogen and progesterone concentrations

B)    Estrogen decreases, progesterone decreases

C)    Estrogen increases, progesterone decreases

D)    Estrogen decreases, progesterone decreases

E)    Luteinizing Hormone increases, Human Chorionic Gonadotrophine increases

 


114.

 

 


Which of the following can be said according to the graph given above?

 

I           Gamete formation in human

II          Gamete formation in phanerogamia

III          Gamete formation in queen honey bee and the development of the male bee

IV        Spore formation and development in ferns

 

A)    I and II

B)    III and IV

C)    II and IV

D)    I,II and IV

E)    I, II, and III

 

 

115. Which one of the following is true about determination?

 

A)    Differentiation occurs before determination

B)    In animals, the cells that appear after the first two dividings are determined

C)    A determined cell will keep its features wherever it is transported in the embryo

D)    When a cell is determined, its structure (shape) will begin to change

E)    A determined cell has the same transcription model as a differentiated one

 

 


BEHAVIOUR (5 questions, 5 points)

 

 

116. In the picture, a flying dummy (silhouette) of a bird is illustrated.  If the dummy is moved over hatched chicks of a pheasant (Phasianus colchicus) from left to right (upper arrow) or from right to left for a second time (lower arrow), the chicks will react as follows (mark the correct answer with an X)

 

 


 

 

I         In both cases the chicks will react to the silhouette by crouching

II        In both cases the chicks will not react at all

III       During the movement of the silhouette from left to right (upper arrow) the chicks will not react.

IV      During the movement of the silhouette from right to left (lower arrow) the chicks will not react

V       During the movement of the silhouette from right to left (lower arrow) the chicks will react by crouching

VI      During the movement of the silhouette from left to the right (upper arrow) the chicks react by crouching

 

A)    Only I

B)    Only II

C)    III and V

D)    IV and VI

E)    III and VI

 

 


117. Animal aggression comes out in several cases and aggression is also motivated by various conditions such as external stimulus.

Which of the following is not an aggressive behavior?

 

A)    The behavior of the prey that is under the threat of being killed

B)    Behavior that does not reflect the normal behavior and specifications of a group

C)    The behavior against intruders in order to protect their territory

D)    Behavior towards other animals that try to steal their own food

E)    Behavior by predator against its prey.

 

 


118

 

 


When honeybees find a food-supply, they can show the exact place of the supply to other individuals of the colony by a ปtail-wagging dance”.  An example to this behavior is illustrated above.

 

According to this example, for a honeybee that makes the illustrated tail-wagging dance below, which one of the following shows the location of the food supply?

 


 

 


119.

 


 

It is known that some grasshopper species may make a sound in order to court the opposite sex and these sounds are species specific.  It is also observed that these sounds seem very different when the close relative species live in the same area.  The sonograms of the ปmating songs” of the five different species of male grasshoppers from the genus Chorthippus is given above.  Which ones of these species are living together in the same are

 

A)    I and II

B)    III and IV

C)    III and V

D)    IV and V

E)    III,IV and V

 

 


120. When a goose notices an egg outside her nest, she rises, extends her neck, touches the egg with her beak, and then rolls it back in very gently.  She completes the same recovery behavior whether the objects she sees is a beer bottle or golf ball, or even if the egg is removed after she has begun to reach.

Which of the following statements is correct according to the description above?

 

A)    The reason why the goose rolls back the objects which do not structurally look like an egg is her lack of recognition

B)    This behavior is caused by instinct

C)    She rolls in the other objects in order to fill her nest to provide suitable incubation conditions.

D)    This behavior is learnt from the parents

E)    The goose recognizes her own egg shape. For this reason, egg rolling is a fixed action pattern and continues without another stimulus.

 


ECOLOGY (15 questions, 15 points)

 

 

 

122. Which one of the following environmental conditions affects the dispersal trend of population positively?

 

A)    The conditions that cause high mortality sometimes creating empty habitats

B)    Very frequent changes in the habitat conditions

C)    Absence of suitable places very close to each other

D)    A low level of natality causing the differences between the habitats

E)    A breakdown at any level of the food chain

 

 

124. According to the population growth curves given below, which population has reached the equilibrium by responding properly to the negative feedback mechanisms with time?

 


 

 

126. A mosquito species which lives in hot and highly humid environment generally chooses little isolated aquatic habitats to reproduce and completes its larval development.  This species gives many generations by reproducing in late May and early October.  To increase its population in a give area which one of the following factors is the most important limiting factor for this species (which is very sensitive to the chemical changes in the habitat water)?

 

A)    Increase in the saturation in the air during the reproductive season

B)    Predation

C)    Competition with another species in the microhabitat

D)    Increase in the shadow factor

E)    Increase in relative humidity

 


127. Which one of the following explanations can not be said about the relationship between the carrying capacity and the environmental response in high density populations

 

A)    Competition increases

B)    The natality rate decreases

C)    The negative feedback mechanism works

D)    The environmental response decreases

E)    The mortality rate increases

 

 

131.    Which one of the following cannot be said about the distribution of populations?

 

A)    These is aggregated distribution in the places where competition or antagonism occurs

B)    Uniform distribution is not prevalent in populations

C)    Aggregated distribution increases competition for food, place and light

D)    Aggregated distribution appears in asexually reproducing plants and in populations showing parental care

E)    Habitat diversity promotes random distribution

 

 

132. A park was built in a place which was occupied by a lot of ปA” trees a long time ago, but they were all cut down and there was not a single ปA” tree left in that region.  Gardeners planted ปA” trees and also ปB” trees and ปC” trees, which had never grown in that region before. Nobody took care of this garden.  After 100 years, there were a lot of new ปA” trees and ปB” trees, but no young ปC” trees.  Which processes refer to the ปA”, ปB” and ปC” trees in that park?

 

                 A)                             B)                                    C)

A)             Introduction             Acclimatization              Reacclimatization

B)             Acclimatization       Introduction                     Reacclimatization

C)            Introduction             Reacclimatization          Acclimatization

D)            Reacclimatization  Acclimatization              Introduction

E)             Acclimatization       Reacclimatization          Introduction

 

 


133. The graph represents the changes in the biomass, diversity and primary production in the ecological succession.  Which time intervals represent the first settler stage and the climax stage, respectively?

 


 

A)    I and II

B)    II and III

C)    I and III

D)    I, II and III

E)    None of the above is correct

 


134. An ecologists wants to investigate if there are any differences in the vegetation on the north and south facing sides of a valley.  She lays down a rope from the top to the bottom of the slope and every 2 meters she places a 1 m2 quadrate next to the rope.  Standing above the quadrate she estimates and records the area occupied by each plant species.  This technique involves which of the following?

 

1.      The use of a point quadrate

2.      The recording of % cover

3.      The plotting of the results on a kite diagram

4.      Random sampling

5.      The use of a belt transect

 

A)    1&2

B)    2 & 3

C)    3 & 4

D)    1,2 & 3

E)    2, 3 & 5